At a news conference Tuesday, midfielder Marco Fabian asked the Mexican fans to stop using an anti-gay slur as a chant against opposing goalkeepers.
flatlander: This article is a bit confusing. It says there was a 2006 federal law that required the sex offender's registration in the state he lived in. So, how does this give too much power to the US Attorney General per the nondelegation doctrine? How did Congress assign its legislative powers to the executive branch if Congress passed the 2006 law? The executive branch's duty is to execute the laws passed by Congress, which seems like exactly what happened here. Am I missing something here, or is the article just not reporting this properly? Why did this even reach the SCOTUS and why did 3 justices vote for the defendant's claim that the nondelegation doctrine applied, especially 3 conservative justices? I could see an argument that the 2006 federal law was unconstitutional, because rape and child abuse and related punishments should be subject to state laws rather than federal laws per the Constitution. Is this what the 3 justices supported? Is this another facet of the nondelegation doctrine that the article failed to explain?